I have a piece of cat5 running from a LAN port on A to a LAN port on B.
The DHCP server of B is off. I thought that in this configuration, B
would act only as a switch?
In any case, why is B only keeping A's computers out if A is using WEP?
When A is using an open conection, A computers can access B computers.
In article <AaJrd.20774$(E-Mail Removed)>,
(E-Mail Removed) says...
> B is serving as a router (not as a gateway as is the case of A)
> As such, B's router is keeping A's computers out - as it is supposed to.
>
> "Al Puzzuoli" <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote in message
> news:(E-Mail Removed). ..
> > Hello,
> >
> > The situation is as follows:
> >
> > I have two wireless routers for the sake of clarity, we'll call them A
> > and B.
> > A is connected to the cable modem, while B is connected to A. The DHCP
> > server of B is deactivated, so B should be serving only as a switch.
> >
> > The wireless portions of the routers are configured on separate SSIDs
> > and channels.
> > Ideally, I would like to set A up as a secure network via WEP, and leave
> > B as open .
> >
> > So long as I run both networks as open/unsecured, I can access devices
> > associated to B's wireless network from computers on A's wireless
> > network. However, if I configure A and its associated devices for WEP,
> > I am no longer able to access B's wireless devices from computers onn A.
> >
> > Why is this the case?
> > If B is serving as a switch, shouldn't I be able to access all devices
> > on B regardless of how devices on A are connecting?
> >
> > Thanks,
> >
> > --Al
> >
>
>
>