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The setup: Roommate situation, he's got his toys, I've got mine. Cablemodem. 2 befsr81s, etc. We are sharing the cable connection, and are set up in the following way (mostly so his gaming traffic stays off _my_ network: RouterA WAN->Cablemodem->Public IP LAN->192.168.10.0/24 His toys->192.168.10.1,2,3 RouterB WAN->RouterA->192.168.10.254 (cabled to RouterA's LAN side) LAN->192.168.20.0/24 My toys->192.168.20.1..etc Routing protocol is RIP2. RouterA is set as Gateway, RouterB as Router. Both networks can see each other fine, both can get to the Internet. The problem arises in that I want certain connections to certain ports coming from the public side of RouterA to hit any of 2 machines on my subnet, either 192.168.20.3 or .4. As an example, I set up a forward for auth port 113 on RouterA to forward to 192.168.10.254 (connected to the WAN port on RouterB). In turn, configured forwarding on RouterB to forward traffic inbound on that port to the intended destination: 192.168.20.3. No luck. I have verified that RouterA is actually doing port forwarding by forwarding 113 traffic to a host local to its own LAN subnet, and it works just dandy. Am I expecting too much out of these routers? Is it impossible to maintain couple routed subnets in the house and be able to route traffic from the Internet to a machine on another subnet? Does the packet stop on the LAN side of the Internet router? WTF can't they open those destination addresses up to any subnet present in the routing tables, rather than just the local subnet? Am I out of luck here? Any help appreciated. Tim |