David Schwartz wrote:
> "Jack Masters" <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote in message
> news:MuidnYHaAN9XjMffRVn-(E-Mail Removed)...
>
>
>>David Schwartz wrote:
>
>
>>>"Bodger" <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote in message
>>>news:(E-Mail Removed) egroups.com...
>
>
>>>>>From an SOA record (bind config file) how is this done?
>
>
>>>>Can I have the record point to a named DNS server rather then an IP?
>
>
>>> Absolutely not. Think about it. Someone is trying to convert a name
>>>to an IP address, but you give them a name. In order to continue, they
>>>have to be able to convert a name to an IP address. But that's what they
>>>were trying to do in the first place.
>
>
>>I don't see why not, as long as the name you use for the nameserver is not
>>in the subdomain. Have an A record for your name server (like ns4.domain A
>>123.123.123.123) in their hosts file, and an SOA record containing just
>>subdomain - NS ns4.domain. Alternatively your nameserver could have an
>>alias in some other domain (say xyz.net).
>>Needs clients that do recursive resolving, but almost anything does
>>nowadays.
>
>
> There are just too many cases where this breaks down. Ensuring the
> nameserver is not in the subdomain is not nearly sufficient to ensure this
> doesn't become pathological.
>
> DS
Agreed, there can be complications if you want to do further fancy
stuff, but it can definitely be done (or I wouldn't get any e-mail.
Maybe not such a bad plan, 80% is spam).
I was merely commenting on the logic that to resolve the nameserver's
hostname one has to know the nameserver's IP address, which is only the
case if the nameserver is in the subdomain. If giving out a hostname (in
some other domain) for a delegated server is a good thing or not is more
a question of policy, depends on how much control the domain owner wants
to have over what happens in his subdomain.
J.
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