In article <40a79444$0$3030$(E-Mail Removed)>,
Rob Dupcak <rob.dupcak@_amd_.com> wrote:
> I have the following configuration that I can't get to work 100%...
>
> Cable Modem connected to Linksys wired router (BEFSR41). 2 wired
> computers and the Netgear MR814 connected to the Linksys. 1 computer
> wired to the Netgear and 2 computers connected wirelessly to the
> Netgear. Very bad ascii picture below:
>
>
> Modem --> Linksys
> |---> Comp#1
> |---> Comp#2
> |---> Netgear
> |---> Comp#3
> |---> Comp#4
> |---> Comp#5
Why not do something like this:
Modem -> router (use whichever you want)
|---> Comp#1
|---> Comp#2
|---> Comp#3
|---> Comp#4
|---> Comp#4
where computers #4 and #5 are connected wirelessly?
> According to wisdom derived through hours and hours of googling, I've
> turned off DHCP in the netgear and let the linksys handle it (and that
> works).
Does the Netgear get an address for its uplink port? Who assigns it?
> I've connected the netgear to the linksys by using a lan port
> on the linksys and a lan port on the netgear (I've used both a straight
> cable and a crossover for this connection). I've tried fiddling with
> static routes on the netgear without any luck.
The Netgear has auto-MDX (I think it's called that... it automatically
detects and corrects reverse polarity on its ethernet ports), so it won't
matter which type of cable you use. There's no good reason I can think of
not to use the Netgear's WAN port, though.
> No matter what I do, I can't seem to get computers hanging off the
> linksys to even see computers hanging off the netgear.
Maybe some deal with number_of_hops > 1?
--
-eben
(E-Mail Removed)m home.tampabay.rr.com/hactar
He who will not reason is a bigot; he who cannot is a fool;
and he who dares not is a slave. -Sir William Drummond