In MsgID<d1vif4$2hr$(E-Mail Removed)> within uk.telecom.broadband,
'Infant Newbie' wrote:
[..]
>> The (boringly standard) DLink router I was playing with earlier will allow
>> you to set its LAN IP to one from a statically assigned subnet, so AFAIK
>> it would then happily distribute to his test machines.
>>
>> One of the first router's ports could then feed the WAN port of a second
>> router (the DLink would do this job too) to take care of the NATed LAN.
>>
>> It means losing a public IP adress for the second router, but I don't see
>> any other problem. (??)
>Will I have to change my mx record on the internet? note I only have a
>single ip at the moment. How will my current port forwarding work?
First of all, let's note that I could be wrong in what I said above. I
think it will work as simply as that, but there's been no confirmation nor
refutation from anyone else here.
If your current IP is part of your new IP block then there will be no need
to change the mx record, but you need to make sure there is a server
available at that IP.
The simplest way I can see would be to set the IP of the NATing router
(the second in the chain) to your old IP, everything *should* then work
exactly as it did before, as all requests to that IP will be routed to the
NAT device which will then do the port forwarding.
I'm not sure if the 2nd router's gateway address should be set to the IP
of the first router, or to the gateway address you're allocated by the
ISP. I think that either should work, but I may be getting too attached to
this shovel.
To other subscribers: I *think* I know what I'm talking about, but some
confirmation would be really nice (:
>thanks in advance
You're welcome. You'd be even more welcome if you could take to shortening
the quotes of previous messages and placing your reply beneath the points
you're replying to..
--
Dave Johnson -
(E-Mail Removed)