Phil we were almost there still need your help.
I have studied, I thank you, VERY MUCH, for your help you're not hearing all
or understanding all about my setup.
The 'Caller' is another vpn router. from the WAN location.
I also have 'Callers' being individual users.
2, types of 'callers'
If you'll recall my original setup, I know it was along time back, I have
Three (3) VPN routers. One at a remote site One as a DMZ at the Main
location and One on the other side of the main location. I then have the
2003 server using RRAS to take 'Users' connecting VIA MS-VPN. The Main
router on the inside of the DMZ is accepting the Tunnel from the Router at
the remote site.
The Routers have 'pass-through' capabilities because they are all the same
model and VPN is already passing thru the DMZ to the Main router and the
users are passing thru DMZ and Main routers to the 2003 server.
If their is a way to have the remote location router VPN directly into RRAS.
THAT's what I'd like to know how to do.
That seems to be the way to get this to work.
If I'm understanding correctly, if the remote router could VPN tunnel
directly into the 2003 box, then the users could connect as they normally do
and the remote site could sustain it's connection as well.
Please tell me this makes better sense now?
George.
MCSA, MCDBA, MCSEnt4, MCSE2K. MBA-IS
With this statement???
{{ (The NAT device IS capable of VPN pass-through, But I don't know how to
create a connection for the WAN NAT device in RRAS.)
You don't. That is not what VPN Pass-through does. It simply "relays" the
Tunnel to the RRAS box and allows the Tunnel to terminate there. The
connection is between the "caller" and the RRAS Server.}}
Are you saying that just by enabling the pass thru for VPN on the Main
router to the RRAS box. that my VPN tunnel will be created from the remote,
or WAN, location? without any IKE policies needed or user name and
password? And that my users will still be able to connect via MS-VPN as
always?
"Phillip Windell" <@.> wrote in message
news:(E-Mail Removed)...
> ""1SE"" <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote in message
> news:(E-Mail Removed)...
> > I do not want my users to have to load special software to connect to
the
> > LAN via VPN so I have to go with the 2003 box using RRAS.
>
> They never would have,..in anything I have suggested.
>
> > But if I eliminate one NIC from the server will Users still be able to
VPN
> > in to the 2003 server?
>
> You are not reading what I write and are blending different things I write
> together that aren't supposed to be.
>
> If the Server has one NIC, then you are doing *everything* with the NAT
> Device (NAT, VPN, everything)
>
> > (The NAT device IS capable of VPN pass-through, But I don't know how to
> > create a connection for the WAN NAT device in RRAS.)
>
> You don't. That is not what VPN Passthrough does. It simply "relays" the
> Tunnel to the RRAS box and allows the Tunnel to terminate there. The
> connection is between the "caller" and the RRAS Server.
>
> I can't do anymore with this. There is no way can teach you what you need
to
> know in email messages. You need to study how this stuff works on your own
> and get a better understanding of how the different theories and models
> work.
>
> --
>
> Phillip Windell [MCP, MVP, CCNA]
> www.wandtv.com
>
>