On Sun, 13 Nov 2005 21:16:29 +0000, Martin Underwood wrote:
> steve wrote in
> (E-Mail Removed):
>
>>> I think the dial-up modem is connected to the phone line (so she can
>>> send faxes), so I wonder if the auto-answer of the modem is somehow
>>> being activated when the VPN software is running.
>>
>> Sounds like it is something to do with that given it is only for
>> incoming calls, the obvious test is to disconnect it and see if the
>> symptoms still happen.
>
> The more I think about it the more I think this must be an explanation.
True, if it were to do with filters then presumably outgoing calls would
be affected, unless the incoming ring signal does something nasty to a
filter. So try taking a spare along too.
>
>>> I've not heard the symptom myself, so I'm just going on what she's
>>> told me. I'm seeing her next Tuesday so I'll have a quick "look but
>>> don't touch" when I'm there!
>>
>> We if its a don't touch rule then not much you can do.
>
> I might try something simple and totally reversable like this, to prove
> whether or not it's the explanation.
Last time I had windows and a modem I vaguely recall an option on telling
a modem not to answer, although you imply this is disabled by is affected
by the VPN software. I suppose it is no unfeasible for the VPN to do
something with the modem as any co-existing dial-in/out connection would
enable access inside the VPN.